Real PRMIA 8010 practice exam questions for easy pass!
Last Updated: May 28, 2026
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1. A risk analyst peforming PCA wishes to explain80% of the variance. The first orthogonal factor has a volatility of 100, and the second 40, and the third 30. Assume there are no other factors. Which of the factors will be included in the final analysis?
A) First, Second and Third
B) First
C) First and Second
D) Insufficient information to answer the question
2. Which of the following cannot be used as an internal credit rating model to assess an individual borrower:
A) Logit model
B) Altman's Z-score
C) Distance to default model
D) Probit model
3. For a loan portfolio, unexpected losses are charged against:
A) Credit reserves
B) Economic capital
C) Economic credit capital
D) Regulatory capital
4. Which of the following steps are required for computing the aggregate distribution for a UoM for operational risk once loss frequency and severity curves have been estimated:
I. Simulate number of losses based on the frequency distribution
II. Simulate the dollar value of the losses from the severity distribution III. Simulate random number from the copula used to model dependence between the UoMs IV. Compute dependent losses from aggregate distribution curves
A) None of the above
B) III and IV
C) All of the above
D) I and II
5. Which of the following event types is hacking damage classified under Basel II operational risk classifications?
A) External fraud
B) Information security
C) Damage to physical assets
D) Technology risk
Solutions:
| Question # 1 Answer: B | Question # 2 Answer: C | Question # 3 Answer: C | Question # 4 Answer: D | Question # 5 Answer: A |
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