[Q56-Q79] Oct-2023 Realistic CCSK Accurate & Verified Answers As Experienced in the Actual Test!

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Oct-2023 Realistic CCSK Accurate & Verified Answers As Experienced in the Actual Test!

Latest Cloud Security Alliance CCSK Practice Test Questions, Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (v4.0) Exam Exam Dumps


Cloud Security Alliance CCSK Exam Certification Details:

Passing Score80%
Duration90 minutes
Exam NameCSA Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK Foundation)
Sample QuestionsCloud Security Alliance CCSK Sample Questions
Recommended Training / BooksCCSK Course
Schedule ExamPEARSON VUE


The CCSK certification program is developed and maintained by the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA), a non-profit organization that is dedicated to promoting cloud security best practices. The CSA is a globally recognized authority in cloud security, with members in over 150 countries. The CCSK exam is based on the CSA's Security Guidance for Critical Areas of Focus in Cloud Computing, which is a comprehensive guide to securing cloud environments.


Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK) Exam Certification Path

I would like to characterize the CCSK as a “survey course” comparable to university introductory courses. The CCSK offers a broad cloud security overview with hooks to dig deeper into the particular coverage area of a student. For instance, developers and application security practitioners can learn how and where to learn more about application security in the cloud and what is different. While an auditor studies the principles of cloud evaluation and auditing and compliance maintenance. So really any career path that overlaps cloud and security.

No official work experience is required, but at least a basic understanding of security fundamentals such as firewalls, secure development, encryption, and identity and access management is helpful for attendees. Hence consider studying the CCSK exam dumps as part of the certification process.

 

NEW QUESTION # 56
Your SLA with your cloud provider ensures continuity for all services.

  • A. True
  • B. False

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 57
When deploying Security as a Service in a highly regulated industry or environment, what should both parties agree on in advance and include in the SLA?

  • A. The cost per incident for security breaches of regulated information.
  • B. The type of security software which meets regulations and the number of licenses that will be needed.
  • C. The metrics defining the service level required to achieve regulatory objectives.
  • D. The regulations that are pertinent to the contract and how to circumvent them.
  • E. The duration of time that a security violation can occur before the client begins assessing regulatory fines.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 58
Sending data to a provider's storage over an API is likely as much more reliable and secure than setting up your own SFTP server on a VM in the same provider

  • A. False
  • B. True

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following is NOT normally a method for detecting and preventing data migration into the cloud?

  • A. Database Activity Monitoring
  • B. Data Loss Prevention
  • C. Intrusion Prevention System
  • D. Cloud Access and Security Brokers (CASB)
  • E. URL filters

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 60
Which is the key mechanism used by organisations that supports. assures and demonstrate compliance?

  • A. Governance
  • B. Risk Management
  • C. Gap Assessment
  • D. Audits

Answer: D

Explanation:
Although very closely related with audits-which are a key mechanism to support assure. and demonstrate compliance-there is more to compliance than audits and more to audits than using them to assure regulatory compliance.
Reference: CSA Security Guidelines V.4 (reproduced here for the educational purpose)


NEW QUESTION # 61
Who is responsible for the security of the physical infrastructure and virtualization platform?

  • A. The majority is covered by the consumer
  • B. The cloud provider
  • C. The cloud consumer
  • D. It depends on the agreement
  • E. The responsibility is split equally

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 62
Which is the core technology for enabling cloud computing and used to convert fixed infrastructure into pooled resources?

  • A. Software Defined Networking
  • B. Application Programming Interfaces
  • C. Virtualization
  • D. Auto-Scaling

Answer: C

Explanation:
Virtualization isn't merely a tool for creating virtual machines-it's the core technology for enabling cloud computing. We use virtualization all throughout computing, from full operating virtual machines to virtual execution environments like the Java Virtual Machine, as well as in storage, networking, and beyond.
Reference: CSA Security Guidelines V.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)


NEW QUESTION # 63
One of the primary benefits of the cloud is the ability to perform dynamic allocation of physical resources when required. The most common approach is a multi-tenant environment. However, it increases risk of disclosure of customer dat a. This can happen because of which of the following?

  • A. No disaster recovery plan
  • B. Increased DDoS
  • C. Tenancy termination
  • D. Isolation Failure

Answer: D

Explanation:
All resources allocated to a particular tenant should be "isolated" and protected to avoid disclosure of information to other tenants For example, when allocated storage is no longer needed IIS Security Considerations for Cloud Computing by a client it can be freely reallocated to another enterprise. ln that case, sensitive data could be disclosed if the storage has not been scrubbed thoroughly(e.g, using forensic software).


NEW QUESTION # 64
Which of the following are communications method for components within a cloud, some of which (or an entirely different set) are exposed to the cloud user to manage their resources and configurations?

  • A. API Gateway
  • B. Application Programming Interfaces (API)
  • C. IPSEC
  • D. Data Identifiers

Answer: B

Explanation:
All this is facilitated using Application Programming Interfaces, APIs are typically the underlying communications method for components within a cloud. some of which (or an entirely different set) are exposed to the cloud user to manage their resources and configurations. Most cloud APIs these days use REST (Representational State Transfer). which runs over the HTTP protocol, making it extremelywe11 suited for Internet services.
Ref: CSA Security Guidelines V4.0


NEW QUESTION # 65
What is defined as the process by which an opposing party may obtain private documents for use in litigation?

  • A. Subpoena
  • B. Risk Assessment
  • C. Scope
  • D. Discovery
  • E. Custody

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 66
Which of the following reports the cloud service provide normally share with customer WITHOUT any non-disclosure agreement and is in the public domain?

  • A. SOC2 Type1
  • B. SOC2 Type2
  • C. SOC1 Type1
  • D. SOC3

Answer: D

Explanation:
A Soc3 reports on the same information as a Soc2 report. The main difference between the two is that a Soc3 is intended fora general audience. These reports are shorter and do not include the same details as a Soc2 report, which is distributed to an informed audience of stakeholders. Due to their more general nature, Soc3 reports can be shared openly and posted on a company's website with a seal indicating their compliance


NEW QUESTION # 67
Which of the following pose the biggest risk in the organization?

  • A. Access Controls
  • B. People
  • C. Technology
  • D. DDoS Attacks

Answer: B

Explanation:
People pose the biggest risk in the organization.
People form the biggest risk as they can expose the sensitive data accidentally or on purpose.
Disgruntled employees or careless employees form a great threat to the organization.


NEW QUESTION # 68
What is a core tenant of risk management?

  • A. If there is still residual risk after assessments and controls are in
    place, you must accept the risk.
  • B. The provider is accountable for all risk management.
  • C. The consumers are completely responsible for all risk.
  • D. You can manage, transfer, accept, or avoid risks.
  • E. Risk insurance covers all financial losses, including loss of customers.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 69
GRC is responsibility of ______ in the all cloud services models

  • A. Reseller
  • B. Service Provider
  • C. Cloud Access Security Broker(CASB)
  • D. Customer

Answer: D

Explanation:
GRC and data is responsibility of the customer in all service models according to shared responsibility model.


NEW QUESTION # 70
Which of the following is an assurance program and documentation registry for cloud provider assessments?

  • A. CSA governance charter
  • B. CSA Star
  • C. CSA Cloud Controls Matrix
  • D. CSA Consensus Assessments Initiative Questionnaire

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Cloud Security Alliance STAR Registry is an assurance program and documentation registry or cloud provider assessments based on the CSA Cloud Controls Matrix and Consensus Assessments Initiative Questionnaire. Some providers also disclose documentation for additional certifications and assessments(including self-assessments).
Ref: Security Guidance v4.0 Copyright2017, Cloud Security Alliance(used for educational purpose here)


NEW QUESTION # 71
Which of the following adds abstraction layer on top of networking hardware and decouples network control plane from the data plane?

  • A. Converged Networks
  • B. VLANs
  • C. Software Defined Networks
  • D. Virtual Private Networks

Answer: C

Explanation:
Software Defined Networking(SDN):A more complete abstraction layer on top of networking hardware, SDNs decouple the network control plane from the data. This allows us to abstract networking from the traditional limitations of a LAN.
Reference: CSA Security GuidelinesV.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)


NEW QUESTION # 72
Which of the following is correct about Due Care & Due Diligence?

  • A. None of the above definitions are correct.
  • B. Due care is the act of investigating and understanding the risks a company faces whereas Due Diligence is the development and implementation of policies and procedures to aid in protecting the company. its assets and its people from threats.
  • C. Due care is technical control whereas Due Deligence is physical control.
  • D. Due diligence is the act of investigating and understanding the risks a company faces whereas Due care is the development and implementation of policies and procedures to aid in protecting the company. its assets and its people from threats.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Definitions:
Due diligence is the act of investigating and understanding the risks a company faces.
Due care is the development and implementation of policies and procedures to aid in protecting the company, its assets, and its people from threats


NEW QUESTION # 73
CCM: The following list of controls belong to which domain of the CCM?
GRM 06 - Policy GRM 07 - Policy Enforcement GRM 08 - Policy Impact on Risk Assessments GRM 09 - Policy Reviews GRM 10 - Risk Assessments GRM 11 - Risk Management Framework

  • A. Governance and Retention Management
  • B. Governance and Risk Management
  • C. Governing and Risk Metrics

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:


NEW QUESTION # 74
The process which frees the resources from their physical constraints to enable pooling is called:

  • A. Orchestration
  • B. Abstraction
  • C. Automation
  • D. Classification

Answer: B

Explanation:
Abstraction. often via virtualization. frees the resources from their physical constraints to enable pooling. Then a set of core connectivity and delivery tools(orchestration)ties these abstracted resources together. creates the pools. and provides the automation to deliver them to customers.
Ref: CSA Security Guidelines V4.0


NEW QUESTION # 75
Select the best definition of "compliance" from the options below.

  • A. The timely and efficient filing of security reports.
  • B. The process of completing all forms and paperwork necessary to develop a defensible paper trail.
  • C. The awareness and adherence to obligations, including the assessment and prioritization of corrective actions deemed necessary and appropriate.
  • D. The development of a routine that covers all necessary security measures.
  • E. The diligent habits of good security practices and recording of the same.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 76
Amount of risk that the leadership and stakeholders of an organization are willing to accept. is known as:

  • A. Risk Tolerance
  • B. Risk Limitation
  • C. Residual Risk
  • D. Risk Avoidance

Answer: A

Explanation:
Risk tolerance is the amount of risk that the leadership and stakeholders of an organization are willing to accept.


NEW QUESTION # 77
Cloud customer can do vulnerability assessment of their whole infrastructure on cloud just like they conduct vulnerbility assessment of their traditional infrastructure.

  • A. True
  • B. False

Answer: B

Explanation:
It is false.
Customer will have to take permission and give notification to cloud service provider.
The cloud owner (public or private) will typically require notification of assessments and place limits on the nature of assessments. This is because they may be unable to distinguish an assessment from a real attack without prior warning.
Ref: CSA Security Guidelines V4.0


NEW QUESTION # 78
Which is the primary tool for governance in Cloud Computing environment?

  • A. Service Level Agreement
  • B. Operational level Agreement
  • C. Governance memo
  • D. Contract

Answer: B

Explanation:
Contracts: The primary tool of governance is the contract between a cloud provider and a cloud customer(this is true for public and private cloud). The contract is your only guarantee of any level of service or commitment-assuming there is no breach of contract, which tosses everything into a legal scenario. Contracts are the primary tool to extend governance into business partners and providers.
Ref: Security Guidance v4.0 Copyright2017, Cloud Security Alliance(used for educational purpose here)


NEW QUESTION # 79
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