Reliable CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Dumps PDF Jun 24, 2024 Recently Updated Questions
Pass Your CompTIA N10-008 Exam with Correct 853 Questions and Answers
CompTIA N10-008 certification exam covers different network technologies such as TCP/IP, VLAN, DNS, DHCP, WAN, LAN, and network security. CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam certification exam validates the knowledge and skills required to configure, install, and troubleshoot wireless and wired network devices. N10-008 exam also covers topics such as network topology, network protocols, network performance, and network troubleshooting methodologies. CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam certification is vendor-neutral, which means that it is not tied to any particular technology, vendor, or product.
NEW QUESTION # 322
A company is designing a new complex. The primary and alternate data centers will be in separate buildings 6.2mi (10km) apart and will be connected via fiber. Which of the following types of SFP is the best choice?
- A. 1000BASE-SX
- B. 10000BASE-LX
- C. 10GBASE-LR
- D. 10GBASE-SR
Answer: C
Explanation:
10GBASE-LR SFP transceivers are designed for long-range transmissions over single-mode fiber optics and can support connections over distances of up to 10 kilometers, making them the appropriate choice for this scenario where the data centers are 6.2 miles apart. These transceivers are specifically engineered for longer distances and are suitable for interconnecting data centers across greater distances.
NEW QUESTION # 323
When accessing corporate network resources, users are required to authenticate to each application they try to access.
Which of the following concepts does this BEST represent?
- A. VPN
- B. Zero Trust
- C. SSO
- D. Role-based access control
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 324
A network device needs to discover a server that can provide it with an IPv4 address. Which of the following does the device need to send the request to?
- A. Broadcast address
- B. Unicast address
- C. Link local address
- D. Default gateway
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The DHCP client sends broadcast request packets to the network; the DHCP servers respond with broadcast packets that offer IP parameters, such as an IP address for the client. After the client chooses the IP parameters, communication between the client and server is by unicast packets.
"When a DHCP client boots up, it automatically sends out a DHCP Discover UDP datagram to the broadcast address, 255.255.255.255. This DHCP Discover message asks "Are there any DHCP servers out there?" The client can't send unicast traffic yet, as it doesn't have a valid IP address that can be used."
NEW QUESTION # 325
A technician performed a manual reconfiguration of a firewall, and network connectivity was reestablished.
Some connection events that were previously sent to a syslog server are no longer being generated by the flrewal Which of Vie following should the technician perform to fix the Issue?
- A. Adjust the proper logging level on the new firewall.
- B. Activate NetFlow traffic between the syslog server and the firewall
- C. Restart the SNMP service running on the syslog server.
- D. Tune the filter for logging the severity level on the syslog server.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 326
Which of the following routing protocols should be implemented to create a route between a local area network and an ISP?
- A. RIP
- B. BGP
- C. EIGRP
- D. OSPF
Answer: B
Explanation:
BGP stands for Border Gateway Protocol, and it is a routing protocol that is used to exchange routing information between different autonomous systems (AS) on the Internet. An AS is a network or a group of networks that are under the same administrative control and share a common routing policy. BGP is used to create routes between local area networks and Internet service providers (ISPs), as well as between different ISPs. BGP is considered an exterior gateway protocol (EGP), as opposed to an interior gateway protocol (IGP) such as EIGRP, RIP, or OSPF, which are used to create routes within an AS.
References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide, Chapter 3, Section 3.4
NEW QUESTION # 327
A technician needs to configure a Linux computer for network monitoring. The technician has the following information:
Linux computer details:
Switch mirror port details:
After connecting the Linux computer to the mirror port on the switch, which of the following commands should the technician run on the Linux computer?
- A. ifconfig eth1 hw ether A1:B2:C3:D4:E5:F6
- B. ifconfig eth0 10.1.2.3
- C. ifconfig eth1 up
- D. ifconfig ecth0 promisc
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The ifconfig eth0 promisc command should be run on the Linux computer to enable promiscuous mode, which allows the computer to capture all network traffic passing through the switch mirror port. References:
CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide, Chapter 7: Network Devices.
NEW QUESTION # 328
A network technician is investigating an issue with a desktop that is not connecting to the network. The desktop was connecting successfully the previous day, and no changes were made to the environment. The technician locates the switchport where the device is connected and observes the LED status light on the switchport is not lit even though the desktop is turned on Other devices that arc plugged into the switch are connecting to the network successfully Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the desktop not connecting?
- A. Damaged cable
- B. Duplex mismatch
- C. VLAN mismatch
- D. Port security
- E. Transceiver mismatch
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A damaged cable is most likely the cause of the desktop not connecting to the network. A damaged cable can cause physical layer issues such as loss of signal, attenuation, interference, or crosstalk. These issues can prevent the desktop from establishing a link with the switch and result in the LED status light on the switchport being off. Other possible causes of physical layer issues are faulty connectors, ports, or transceivers. References: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/ethernet/14119-37.html
NEW QUESTION # 329
During a recent security audit, a contracted penetration tester discovered the organization uses a number of insecure protocols. Which of the following ports should be disallowed so only encrypted protocols are allowed? (Select TWO).
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
- E. 4
- F. 5
Answer: B,F
Explanation:
* Port 23 is used by Telnet, an insecure protocol that sends data in plain text over the network. Telnet should be replaced by SSH, which uses port 22 and encrypts the data.
* Port 69 is used by TFTP, an insecure protocol that transfers files without authentication or encryption.
* TFTP should be replaced by SFTP or FTPS, which use port 22 or 990 respectively and encrypt the data.
* Port 443 is used by HTTPS, a secure protocol that encrypts the data using SSL/TLS certificates. HTTPS should be preferred over HTTP, which uses port 80 and sends data in plain text.
* Port 587 is used by SMTP, a protocol that sends email messages. SMTP can be secured by using STARTTLS, which initiates encryption after the initial handshake. Alternatively, port 465 can be used for SMTPS, which encrypts the data from the start.
* Port 8080 is used by HTTP proxy, a protocol that allows clients to access web servers through an intermediary. HTTP proxy can be secured by using HTTPS proxy, which uses port 443 and encrypts the data.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Protocols and Services, pages 62-63,
66-67, 69-70, 72-73, 75-76.
* Professor Messer's CompTIA N10-008 Network+ Course Notes, Section 2.1: Common TCP and UDP Ports, pages 16-17.
* Professor Messer's CompTIA N10-008 Network+ Training Course, Video 2.1: Common TCP and UDP Ports, 6.
NEW QUESTION # 330
A network security technician is designing a solution for a secure remote access scheme with the following requirements:
* The solution must allow for users at multiple locations to access corporate resources.
* The on-premises equipment will not handle non-corporate, resource-bound traffic.
Which of the following should the network security technician consider when designing the solution? (Select two).
- A. Split-tunnel VPN
- B. Site-to-site VPN
- C. Full-tunnel VPN
- D. Client-to-site VPN
- E. Clientless VPN
- F. Personal VPN
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
A client-to-site VPN and a split-tunnel VPN are the best options for designing a secure remote access scheme that meets the given requirements. A client-to-site VPN allows users at multiple locations to access corporate resources over the internet by creating a secure tunnel between their devices and a VPN concentrator on the corporate network1. A split-tunnel VPN allows the on-premises equipment to handle only the traffic that is destined for the corporate resources, while the non-corporate traffic is routed directly to the internet without passing through the VPN tunnel2. This reduces the bandwidth and processing load on the corporate network and improves the performance of the remote access.
Reference:
Remote Access - N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 4.41
comptia Network+ : Remote Access Methods And Network Monitoring2
NEW QUESTION # 331
Which of the following most likely requires the use of subinterfaces?
- A. A switch using Spanning Tree Protocol
- B. A firewall performing deep packet inspection
- C. A router with only one available LAN port
- D. A hub utilizing jumbo frames
Answer: C
Explanation:
Subinterfaces are logical divisions of a physical interface that allow a router to communicate with multiple networks using a single LAN port. Subinterfaces can have different IP addresses, VLANs, and routing protocols. They are useful for reducing the number of physical interfaces and cables needed, as well as improving network performance and security.
Reference:
Subinterfaces - CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Domain 1.21 - YouTube1
CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 92
NEW QUESTION # 332
Which of the following DHCP settings would be used to ensure a device gets the same IP address each time it is connected to the network?
- A. Scope options
- B. Exclusion
- C. Reservation
- D. Relay
- E. Pool
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 333
Which of the following will reduce routing table lookups by performing packet forwarding decisions independently of the network layer header?
- A. VRRP
- B. EIGRP
- C. mGRE
- D. MPLS
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 334
An AP uses a 98ft (30m) Cat 6 cable to connect to an access switch. The cable is wired through a duct close to a three-phase motor installation. Anytime the three-phase is turned on, all users connected to the switch experience high latency on the network. Which Of the following is MOST likely the cause Of the issue?
- A. Open circuit
- B. Short circuit
- C. Interference
- D. Attenuation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Interference is a phenomenon that occurs when unwanted signals or noise affect the transmission or reception of data signals on a network. Interference can cause network issues such as high latency, low throughput, packet loss, or errors. Interference can be caused by various sources, such as electromagnetic fields, radio waves, power lines, or electrical devices. In this scenario, the three-phase motor installation is a source of interference that affects the Cat 6 cable that connects the AP to the access switch. The cable is wired through a duct close to the motor installation, which exposes it to the electromagnetic fields generated by the motor. Anytime the motor is turned on, the interference causes high latency for all users connected to the switch.
NEW QUESTION # 335
Users are reporting performance issues when attempting to access the main fileshare server.
Which of the following steps should a network administrator perform NEXT based on the network troubleshooting methodology?
- A. Document all findings, actions, and lessons learned.
- B. Implement a fix to resolve the connectivity issues.
- C. Establish a theory of probable cause.
- D. Determine if anything has changed.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Determine if anything has changed is part of Step 1 which is where you would start when you first receive a report of a symptom such as slowness.
NEW QUESTION # 336
A company ranis out a largo event space and includes wireless internet access for each tenant. Tenants reserve a two-hour window from the company each week, which includes a tenant-specific SSID However, all users share the company's network hardware.
The network support team is receiving complaints from tenants that some users are unable to connect to the wireless network Upon investigation, the support teams discovers a pattern indicating that after a tenant with a particularly large attendance ends its sessions, tenants throughout the day are unable to connect.
The following settings are common lo all network configurations:
Which of the following actions would MOST likely reduce this Issue? (Select TWO).
- A. Change the DNS server to 10.1.10.1.
- B. Change the default gateway to 10.0.0.1.
- C. Change to WPA encryption
- D. Reduce the DHCP lease time to four hours.
- E. Disable AP isolation
- F. Change the DHCP scope end to 10.1.10.250
- G. Change the subnet mask lo 255.255.255.192.
Answer: D,F
NEW QUESTION # 337
A non-employee was able to enter a server room. Which of the following could have prevented this from happening?
- A. OTP key fob
- B. Employee training
- C. A security camera
- D. A biometric reader
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A biometric reader is a device that scans a person's physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, iris, or face, and compares them to a database of authorized users. A biometric reader can be used to restrict access to a server room and prevent unauthorized entry. A biometric reader provides a high level of security and cannot be easily bypassed or duplicated.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 5.1: Summarize the importance of physical security controls.
NEW QUESTION # 338
A network administrator wants all outgoing traffic to the internet to flow through a single device for web content inspection. Which of the following devices is the most appropriate?
- A. Load balancer
- B. Router
- C. Proxy server
- D. VPN headend
Answer: C
Explanation:
A proxy server is the most appropriate device for inspecting all outgoing traffic to the internet5. It acts as an intermediary between users and the internet, allowing the network administrator to inspect and control the content accessed by the users
NEW QUESTION # 339
A user is required to log in to a main web application, which then grants the user access to all other programs needed to complete job-related tasks. Which of the following authentication methods does this setup describe?
- A. 802.1X
- B. SSO
- C. Multifactor authentication
- D. RADIUS
- E. TACACS+
Answer: B
Explanation:
The authentication method that this setup describes is SSO (Single Sign-On). SSO is a technique that allows a user to log in once to a main web application and then access multiple other applications or services without having to re-enter credentials. SSO simplifies the user experience and reduces the number of passwords to remember and manage. Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 371; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 14-5.
NEW QUESTION # 340
Users in a branch can access an ln-house database server, but II is taking too long to fetch records. The analyst does not know whether the Issue is being caused by network latency. Which of the following will the analyst MOST likely use to retrieve the metrics that are needed to resolve this issue?
- A. SNMP
- B. Syslog
- C. Link state
- D. QoS
- E. Traffic shaping
Answer: A
Explanation:
Network latency is the amount of time it takes for a packet to travel from its source to its destination, measured in milliseconds1.
High network latency can cause slow performance, packet reordering, and network congestion1.
To resolve network latency issues, the analyst needs to measure and monitor various network metrics, such as latency, jitter, packet loss, throughput, and error rate1.
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is a protocol that allows network devices to exchange management information and report network statistics2.
SNMP can be used to retrieve network metrics from routers, switches, servers, firewalls, and other network devices2.
SNMP uses a manager-agent model, where the manager is a software application that queries the agents on the network devices, and the agents are software components that respond to the manager's requests2.
SNMP can also use traps or notifications, where the agents send unsolicited messages to the manager when certain events or thresholds are met2.
SNMP can help the analyst identify the source and extent of network latency, as well as troubleshoot and optimize network performance2.
Link state is a routing protocol that maintains a map of the network topology and calculates the best path to each destination3. It is not a tool for measuring network metrics or resolving network latency issues.
Syslog is a protocol that allows network devices to send log messages to a centralized server for analysis and reporting. It can provide useful information for network troubleshooting, but it is not a tool for measuring network metrics or resolving network latency issues.
QoS (Quality of Service) is a set of techniques that prioritize network traffic based on its type, source, destination, and other criteria. It can help improve network performance and reduce network latency, but it is not a tool for measuring network metrics or resolving network latency issues.
Traffic shaping is a technique that controls the rate and volume of network traffic to optimize bandwidth usage and prevent network congestion. It can help improve network performance and reduce network latency, but it is not a tool for measuring network metrics or resolving network latency issues.
Reference:
1: 19 Network Metrics: How to Measure Network Performance
2: Using SNMP to Monitor Network Devices
3: Link State Routing Protocol
[4]: Syslog Protocol
[5]: Quality of Service (QoS)
[6]: Traffic Shaping
NEW QUESTION # 341
A user is experimenting with audio transmissions and would like the transmissions to reach several specific devices simultaneously over the IP network. The user requests assistance from a network technician to configure the appropriate features within the SOHO. Which of the following should the technician configure to meet the requirements?
- A. Multicast
- B. Unicast
- C. Anycast
- D. Broadcast
Answer: A
Explanation:
Multicast is the network communication method to use when audio transmissions need to reach several specific devices simultaneously over an IP network. It allows for efficient network use by directing a single stream of data to multiple recipients without needing to send separate streams to each recipient. Unicast sends data to a single destination, anycast sends data to the nearest or best destination in a group, and broadcast sends data to all devices in the network segment. Thus, multicast is most appropriate for the requirement described.
NEW QUESTION # 342
A network administrator is reviewing the following metrics from a network management system regarding a switchport. The administrator suspects an issue because users are calling in regards to the switchport's performance:
Based on the information in the chart above, which of the following fs the cause of these performance issues?
- A. The switchport does not have enough CRCs
- B. The connected device is exceeding the configured MTU.
- C. The switchport has been up for too long
- D. The connected device is sending too many packets
- E. The connected device is receiving too many packets.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 343
Given the following Information:
Which of the following would cause performance degradation between PC A and PC B'?
- A. Decibel loss
- B. Interference
- C. Attenuation
- D. Incorrect pinout
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 344
A customer hired a network consultant to install a new wireless network with the following specifications:
2.4GHz
11Mbps
20MHz
Which of the following standards best fits these requirements?
- A. 802.11g
- B. 802.11ac
- C. 802.11n
- D. 802.11b
Answer: D
Explanation:
The 802.11b standard is a wireless networking protocol that operates in the 2.4GHz frequency band and supports a maximum data rate of 11Mbps. It uses a 20MHz channel width and a direct-sequence spread spectrum (DSSS) modulation technique2. The 802.11b standard was released in 1999 and is backward compatible with the original 802.11 standard3. The other standards do not match the specifications given by the customer. 802.11ac operates in the 5GHz band and supports higher data rates up to 6.9Gbps. 802.11g also operates in the 2.4GHz band but supports data rates up to 54Mbps. 802.11n can operate in both 2.4GHz and
5GHz bands and supports data rates up to 600Mbps. It also uses a wider channel width of 40MHz and a multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) technology3.
References2 - 802.11 Standards Explained: 802.11ax, 802.11ac, 802.11b/g/n, 802.11a - Lifewire3 - Introduction to WLAN Frequency Bands | Engineering Education (EngEd ...
NEW QUESTION # 345
A network administrator needs to query the NSs for a remote application. Which of the following commands would BEST help the administrator accomplish this task?
- A. arp
- B. hostname
- C. dig
- D. show interface
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Linux/Unix dig (short for domain information groper) utility does the exact same thing as nslookup. It's primarily a command-line utility that allows you to perform a single DNS lookup for a specific entity, but it can also be employed in batch mode for a series of lookups.
NEW QUESTION # 346
......
CompTIA N10-008 certification is highly regarded by employers in the IT industry, as it is an indication of an individual's ability to manage and maintain complex network infrastructures. CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam certification is recognized globally and can open doors to a variety of job opportunities in network administration, security, and other related fields. In addition, the CompTIA Network+ certification is a stepping stone to more advanced certifications, such as the CompTIA Security+ or Cisco CCNA certifications.
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