Updated Dec-2024 CAS-005 Exam Practice Test Questions
Verified CAS-005 dumps Q&As 100% Pass in First Attempt Guaranteed Updated Dump
NEW QUESTION # 14
A company hosts a platform-as-a-service solution with a web-based front end, through which customer interact with data sets. A security administrator needs to deploy controls to prevent application-focused attacks. Which of the following most directly supports the administrator's objective'
- A. Creating WAF policies for relevant programming languages
- B. Rotating API access and authorization keys every two months
- C. improving security dashboard visualization on SIEM
- D. Implementing application toad balancing and cross-region availability
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best way to prevent application-focused attacks for a platform-as-a-service solution with a web-based front end is to create Web Application Firewall (WAF) policies for relevant programming languages. Here's why:
* Application-Focused Attack Prevention: WAFs are designed to protect web applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic between a web application and the Internet. They help prevent attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and other application-layer attacks.
* Customizable Rules: WAF policies can be tailored to the specific programming languages and frameworks used by the web application, providing targeted protection based on known vulnerabilities and attack patterns.
* Real-Time Protection: WAFs provide real-time protection, blocking malicious requests before they reach the application, thereby enhancing the security posture of the platform.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* OWASP Top Ten: Web Application Security Risks
* NIST Special Publication 800-95: Guide to Secure Web Services
NEW QUESTION # 15
A security administrator needs to automate alerting. The server generates structured log files that need to be parsed to determine whether an alarm has been triggered Given the following code function:
Which of the following is most likely the log input that the code will parse?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The code function provided in the question seems to be designed to parse JSON formatted logs to check for an alarm state. Option A is a JSON format that matches the structure likely expected by the code. The presence of the "error_log" and "InAlarmState" keys suggests that this is the correct input format.
NEW QUESTION # 16
Emails that the marketing department is sending to customers are pomp to the customers' spam folders. The security team is investigating the issue and discovers that the certificates used by the email server were reissued, but DNS records had not been updated. Which of the following should the security team update in order to fix this issue? (Select three.)
- A. MX
- B. SAN
- C. DMARC
- D. SASC
- E. DKIM
- F. SPF
- G. SOA
- H. DNSSEC
Answer: C,E,F
Explanation:
To prevent emails from being marked as spam, several DNS records related to email authentication need to be properly configured and updated when there are changes to the email server's certificates:
* A. DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance): DMARC records help email servers determine how to handle messages that fail SPF or DKIM checks, improving email deliverability and reducing the likelihood of emails being marked as spam.
* B. SPF (Sender Policy Framework): SPF records specify which mail servers are authorized to send email on behalf of your domain. Updating the SPF record ensures that the new email server is recognized as an authorized sender.
* C. DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail): DKIM adds a digital signature to email headers, allowing the receiving server to verify that the email has not been tampered with and is from an authorized sender. Updating DKIM records ensures that emails are properly signed and authenticated.
* D. DNSSEC (Domain Name System Security Extensions): DNSSEC adds security to DNS by enabling DNS responses to be verified. While important for DNS security, it does not directly address the issue of emails being marked as spam.
* E. SASC: This is not a relevant standard for this scenario.
* F. SAN (Subject Alternative Name): SAN is used in SSL/TLS certificates for securing multiple domain names, not for email delivery issues.
* G. SOA (Start of Authority): SOA records are used for DNS zone administration and do not directly impact email deliverability.
* H. MX (Mail Exchange): MX records specify the mail servers responsible for receiving email on behalf of a domain. While important, the primary issue here is the authentication of outgoing emails, which is handled by SPF, DKIM, and DMARC.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* RFC 7208 (SPF), RFC 6376 (DKIM), and RFC 7489 (DMARC)
* NIST SP 800-45, "Guidelines on Electronic Mail Security"
NEW QUESTION # 17
An organization wants to create a threat model to identity vulnerabilities in its infrastructure. Which of the following, should be prioritized first?
- A. Internal infrastructure with high-seventy and Known exploited vulnerabilities
- B. External-facing Infrastructure with known exploited vulnerabilities
- C. External-facing infrastructure with a high risk score that can only be exploited with local access to the resource
- D. External facing Infrastructure with a low risk score and no known exploited vulnerabilities
Answer: B
Explanation:
When creating a threat model to identify vulnerabilities in an organization's infrastructure, prioritizing external-facing infrastructure with known exploited vulnerabilities is critical. Here's why:
* Exposure to Attack: External-facing infrastructure is directly exposed to the internet, making it a primary target for attackers. Any vulnerabilities in this layer pose an immediate risk to the organization's security.
* Known Exploited Vulnerabilities: Vulnerabilities that are already known and exploited in the wild are of higher concern because they are actively being used by attackers. Addressing these vulnerabilities reduces the risk of exploitation significantly.
* Risk Mitigation: By prioritizing external-facing infrastructure with known exploited vulnerabilities, the organization can mitigate the most immediate and impactful threats, thereby improving overall security posture.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-30: Guide for Conducting Risk Assessments
* OWASP Threat Modeling Cheat Sheet
NEW QUESTION # 18
A security engineer performed a code scan that resulted in many false positives. The security engineer must find a solution that improves the quality of scanning results before application deployment. Which of the following is the best solution?
- A. Configuring branch protection rules and dependency checks
- B. Performing updates on code libraries before code development
- C. Limiting the tool to a specific coding language and tuning the rule set
- D. Using an application vulnerability scanner to identify coding flaws in production
Answer: C
Explanation:
To improve the quality of code scanning results and reduce false positives, the best solution is to limit the tool to a specific coding language and fine-tune the rule set. By configuring the code scanning tool to focus on the specific language used in the application, the tool can more accurately identify relevant issues and reduce the number of false positives. Additionally, tuning the rule set ensures that the tool's checks are appropriate for the application's context, further improving the accuracy of the scan results.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses best practices for configuring code scanning tools, including language-specific tuning and rule set adjustments.
* "Secure Coding: Principles and Practices" by Mark G. Graff and Kenneth R. van Wyk: Highlights the importance of customizing code analysis tools to reduce false positives.
* OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project): Provides guidelines for configuring and tuning code scanning tools to improve accuracy.
NEW QUESTION # 19
A security analyst reviews the following report:
Which of the following assessments is the analyst performing?
- A. Supply chain
- B. Organizational
- C. Quantitative
- D. System
Answer: A
Explanation:
The table shows detailed information about products, including location, chassis manufacturer, OS, application developer, and vendor. This type of information is typically assessed in a supply chain assessment to evaluate the security and reliability of components and services from different suppliers.
Why Supply Chain Assessment?
* Component Evaluation: Assessing the origin and security of each component used in the products, including hardware, software, and third-party services.
* Vendor Reliability: Evaluating the security practices and reliability of vendors involved in providing components or services.
* Risk Management: Identifying potential risks associated with the supply chain, such as vulnerabilities in third-party components or insecure development practices.
Other types of assessments do not align with the detailed supplier and component information provided:
* A. System: Focuses on individual system security, not the broader supply chain.
* C. Quantitative: Focuses on numerical risk assessments, not supplier information.
* D. Organizational: Focuses on internal organizational practices, not external suppliers.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* NIST Special Publication 800-161, "Supply Chain Risk Management Practices for Federal Information Systems and Organizations"
* "Supply Chain Security Best Practices," Gartner Research
NEW QUESTION # 20
After an incident occurred, a team reported during the lessons-learned review that the team.
* Lost important Information for further analysis.
* Did not utilize the chain of communication
* Did not follow the right steps for a proper response
Which of the following solutions is the best way to address these findinds?
- A. Requesting budget for better forensic tools to Improve technical capabilities for Incident response operations
- B. Building playbooks for different scenarios and performing regular table-top exercises
- C. Requiring professional incident response certifications tor each new team member
- D. Publishing the incident response policy and enforcing it as part of the security awareness program
Answer: B
Explanation:
Building playbooks for different scenarios and performing regular table-top exercises directly addresses the issues identified in the lessons-learned review. Here's why:
* Lost important information for further analysis: Playbooks outline step-by-step procedures for incident response, ensuring that team members know exactly what to document and how to preserve evidence.
* Did not utilize the chain of communication: Playbooks include communication protocols, specifying who to notify and when. Regular table-top exercises reinforce these communication channels, ensuring they are followed during actual incidents.
* Did not follow the right steps for a proper response: Playbooks provide a clear sequence of actions to be taken during various types of incidents, helping the team to respond in a structured and effective manner. Regular exercises allow the team to practice these steps, identifying and correcting any deviations from the plan.
Investing in better forensic tools (Option A) or requiring certifications (Option C) are also valuable, but they do not directly address the procedural and communication gaps identified. Publishing and enforcing the incident response policy (Option D) is important but not as practical and hands-on as playbooks and exercises in ensuring the team is prepared.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* NIST SP 800-61 Rev. 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide"
* SANS Institute, "Incident Handler's Handbook"
NEW QUESTION # 21
A security analyst is troubleshooting the reason a specific user is having difficulty accessing company resources The analyst reviews the following information:
Which of the following is most likely the cause of the issue?
- A. Several users have not configured their mobile devices to receive OTP codes
- B. The local network access has been configured to bypass MFA requirements.
- C. A network geolocation is being misidentified by the authentication server
- D. Administrator access from an alternate location is blocked by company policy
Answer: C
Explanation:
The table shows that the user "SALES1" is consistently blocked despite having met the MFA requirements.
The common factor in these blocked attempts is the source IP address (8.11.4.16) being identified as from Germany while the user is assigned to France. This discrepancy suggests that the network geolocation is being misidentified by the authentication server, causing legitimate access attempts to be blocked.
Why Network Geolocation Misidentification?
* Geolocation Accuracy: Authentication systems often use IP geolocation to verify the location of access attempts. Incorrect geolocation data can lead to legitimate requests being denied if they appear to come from unexpected locations.
* Security Policies: Company security policies might block access attempts from certain locations to prevent unauthorized access. If the geolocation is wrong, legitimate users can be inadvertently blocked.
* Consistent Pattern: The user "SALES1" from the IP address 8.11.4.16 is always blocked, indicating a consistent issue with geolocation.
Other options do not align with the pattern observed:
* A. Bypass MFA requirements: MFA is satisfied, so bypassing MFA is not the issue.
* C. Administrator access policy: This is about user access, not specific administrator access.
* D. OTP codes: The user has satisfied MFA, so OTP code configuration is not the issue.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* "Geolocation and Authentication," NIST Special Publication 800-63B
* "IP Geolocation Accuracy," Cisco Documentation
NEW QUESTION # 22
A company lined an email service provider called my-email.com to deliver company emails. The company stalled having several issues during the migration. A security engineer is troubleshooting and observes the following configuration snippet:
Which of the following should the security engineer modify to fix the issue? (Select two).
- A. The TXT record must be Changed to "v=dmarc ip4:192.168.1.10 include:my-email.com -all"
- B. The srv01 A record must be changed to a type CNAME record pointing to the web01 server
- C. The srvo1 A record must be changed to a type CNAME record pointing to the email server
- D. The TXT record must be changed to "v=dkim ip4:l92.168.1.11 include my-email.com -ell"
- E. The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.1.10
- F. The TXT record must be Changed to "v=dkim ip4:192.168.1.10 include:email-all"
- G. The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.111
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
The security engineer should modify the following to fix the email migration issues:
* Email CNAME Record: The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to
192.168.1.10. This is because CNAME records should not be used where an IP address (A record) is
* required. Changing it to an A record ensures direct pointing to the correct IP.
* TXT Record for DMARC: The TXT record must be changed to "v=dmarc ip4:192.168.1.10 include com -all". This ensures proper configuration of DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting
& Conformance) to include the correct IP address and the email service provider domain.
* DMARC: Ensuring the DMARC record is correctly set up helps in preventing email spoofing and phishing, aligning with email security best practices.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* RFC 7489: Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance (DMARC)
* NIST Special Publication 800-45: Guidelines on Electronic Mail Security
NEW QUESTION # 23
A company receives reports about misconfigurations and vulnerabilities in a third-party hardware device that is part of its released products. Which of the following solutions is the best way for the company to identify possible issues at an earlier stage?
- A. Performing regular red-team exercises on the vendor production line
- B. Implementing a monitoring process for the integration between the application and the vendor appliance
- C. Implementing a proper supply chain risk management program
- D. Performing vulnerability tests on each device delivered by the providers
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 24
Developers have been creating and managing cryptographic material on their personal laptops fix use in production environment. A security engineer needs to initiate a more secure process. Which of the following is the best strategy for the engineer to use?
- A. Managing secrets on the vTPM hardware
- B. Disabling the BIOS and moving to UEFI
- C. Managing key material on a HSM
- D. Employing shielding lo prevent LMI
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best strategy for securely managing cryptographic material is to use a Hardware Security Module (HSM).
Here's why:
* Security and Integrity: HSMs are specialized hardware devices designed to protect and manage digital keys. They provide high levels of physical and logical security, ensuring that cryptographic material is well protected against tampering and unauthorized access.
* Centralized Key Management: Using HSMs allows for centralized management of cryptographic keys, reducing the risks associated with decentralized and potentially insecure key storage practices, such as on personal laptops.
* Compliance and Best Practices: HSMs comply with various industry standards and regulations (such as FIPS 140-2) for secure key management. This ensures that the organization adheres to best practices and meets compliance requirements.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-57: Recommendation for Key Management
* ISO/IEC 19790:2012: Information Technology - Security Techniques - Security Requirements for Cryptographic Modules
NEW QUESTION # 25
A security analyst is reviewing the following authentication logs:
Which of the following should the analyst do first?
- A. Disable User1's account
- B. Disable User8's account
- C. Disable User2's account
- D. Disable User12's account
Answer: A
Explanation:
Based on the provided authentication logs, we observe that User1's account experienced multiple failed login attempts within a very short time span (at 8:01:23 AM on 12/15). This pattern indicates a potential brute-force attack or an attempt to gain unauthorized access. Here's a breakdown of why disabling User1's account is the appropriate first step:
* Failed Login Attempts: The logs show that User1 had four consecutive failed login attempts:
* VM01 at 8:01:23 AM
* VM08 at 8:01:23 AM
* VM01 at 8:01:23 AM
* VM08 at 8:01:23 AM
* Security Protocols and Best Practices: According to CompTIA Security+ guidelines, multiple failed login attempts within a short timeframe should trigger an immediate response to prevent further potential unauthorized access attempts. This typically involves temporarily disabling the account to stop ongoing brute-force attacks.
* Account Lockout Policy: Implementing an account lockout policy is a standard practice to thwart brute-force attacks. Disabling User1's account will align with these best practices and prevent further failed attempts, which might lead to successful unauthorized access if not addressed.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives
* NIST Special Publication 800-63B: Digital Identity Guidelines
By addressing User1's account first, we effectively mitigate the immediate threat of a brute-force attack, ensuring that further investigation can be conducted without the risk of unauthorized access continuing during the investigation period.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which of the following is the main reason quantum computing advancements are leading companies and countries to deploy new encryption algorithms?
- A. Encryption systems based on large prime numbers will be vulnerable to exploitation
- B. Quantum computers will enable malicious actors to capture IP traffic in real time
- C. Zero Trust security architectures will require homomorphic encryption.
- D. Perfect forward secrecy will prevent deployment of advanced firewall monitoring techniques
Answer: A
Explanation:
Advancements in quantum computing pose a significant threat to current encryption systems, especially those based on the difficulty of factoring large prime numbers, such as RSA. Quantum computers have the potential to solve these problems exponentially faster than classical computers, making current cryptographic systems vulnerable.
Why Large Prime Numbers are Vulnerable:
* Shor's Algorithm: Quantum computers can use Shor's algorithm to factorize large integers efficiently, which undermines the security of RSA encryption.
* Cryptographic Breakthrough: The ability to quickly factor large prime numbers means that encrypted data, which relies on the hardness of this mathematical problem, can be decrypted.
Other options, while relevant, do not capture the primary reason for the shift towards new encryption algorithms:
* B. Zero Trust security architectures: While important, the shift to homomorphic encryption is not the main driver for new encryption algorithms.
* C. Perfect forward secrecy: It enhances security but is not the main reason for new encryption algorithms.
* D. Real-time IP traffic capture: Quantum computers pose a more significant threat to the underlying cryptographic algorithms than to the real-time capture of traffic.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* NIST Special Publication 800-208, "Recommendation for Stateful Hash-Based Signature Schemes"
* "Quantum Computing and Cryptography," MIT Technology Review
NEW QUESTION # 27
A security analyst received a report that an internal web page is down after a company-wide update to the web browser Given the following error message:
Which of the following is the best way to fix this issue?
- A. Discontinuing the use of self-signed certificates
- B. Disabling all deprecated ciphers
- C. Blocking all non-essential pons
- D. Rewriting any legacy web functions
Answer: A
Explanation:
The error message "NET::ERR_CERT_WEAK_SIGNATURE_ALGORITHM" indicates that the web browser is rejecting the certificate because it uses a weak signature algorithm. This commonly happens with self-signed certificates, which often use outdated or insecure algorithms.
Why Discontinue Self-Signed Certificates?
* Security Compliance: Modern browsers enforce strict security standards and may reject certificates that do not comply with these standards.
* Trusted Certificates: Using certificates from a trusted Certificate Authority (CA) ensures compliance with security standards and is less likely to be flagged as insecure.
* Weak Signature Algorithm: Self-signed certificates might use weak algorithms like MD5 or SHA-1, which are considered insecure.
Other options do not address the specific cause of the certificate error:
* A. Rewriting legacy web functions: Does not address the certificate issue.
* B. Disabling deprecated ciphers: Useful for improving security but not related to the certificate error.
* C. Blocking non-essential ports: This is unrelated to the issue of certificate validation.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* "Managing SSL/TLS Certificates," OWASP
* "Best Practices for Certificate Management," NIST Special Publication 800-57
NEW QUESTION # 28
An organization is required to
* Respond to internal and external inquiries in a timely manner
* Provide transparency.
* Comply with regulatory requirements
The organization has not experienced any reportable breaches but wants to be prepared if a breach occurs in the future. Which of the following is the best way for the organization to prepare?
- A. Integrating automated response mechanisms into the data subject access request process
- B. Outsourcing the handling of necessary regulatory filing to an external consultant
- C. Conducting lessons-learned activities and integrating observations into the crisis management plan
- D. Developing communication templates that have been vetted by internal and external counsel
Answer: D
Explanation:
Preparing communication templates that have been vetted by both internal and external counsel ensures that the organization can respond quickly and effectively to internal and external inquiries, comply with regulatory requirements, and provide transparency in the event of a breach.
Why Communication Templates?
* Timely Response: Pre-prepared templates ensure that responses are ready to be deployed quickly, reducing response time.
* Regulatory Compliance: Templates vetted by counsel ensure that all communications meet legal and regulatory requirements.
* Consistent Messaging: Ensures that all responses are consistent, clear, and accurate, maintaining the organization's credibility.
* Crisis Management: Pre-prepared templates are a critical component of a broader crisis management plan, ensuring that all stakeholders are informed appropriately.
Other options, while useful, do not provide the same level of preparedness and compliance:
* A. Outsourcing to an external consultant: This may delay response times and lose internal control over the communication.
* B. Integrating automated response mechanisms: Useful for efficiency but not for ensuring compliant and vetted responses.
* D. Conducting lessons-learned activities: Important for improving processes but does not provide immediate preparedness for communication.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide"
* ISO/IEC 27002:2013, "Information technology - Security techniques - Code of practice for information security controls"
NEW QUESTION # 29
......
Pass CompTIA CASP CAS-005 Exam With 120 Questions: https://freetorrent.itpass4sure.com/CAS-005-practice-exam.html
